Why doesn’t the forcing of Wisconsin’s public employees to join the union violate (in spirit) Article 20, point 2 of the UN’s Universal Declaration of Human Rights, “No one may be compelled to belong to an association”?
You could argue that no one has to be a public employee. However, Article 20.2 seems pretty weak if a simple loophole is for the government to define broad classes of people (e.g. public employees) who are compelled to belong to a separate association, rather than to compel all people to do so.
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